Dear brethren,
Today's readings:
Judges 19-21; Acts 2
Acts 2:38 (KJV)
Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
The bible take on baptism is crystal clear. It is FOR the remission of sin. In other words the act of baptism remits or makes one free from sin. Paul would later recount what Ananias said to him about baptism in Acts 22:16 "...
arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins..."
Detracters will go to great lengths to explain away the simple command. For example, some claim that "for" really means "unto" and use 1Co 10:2 to explain that it is for the purpose of identifying with having had sins remitted in the first place.
Firstly, we cannot substitute one context with another. 1Co 10:2 was Paul purely using figures of speech to illustrate the types in the Old Testament. Everyone can understand that the same word can be used differently in different contexts! It's like saying when one says "I love durian" really means "I like to eat durian" and therefore "I love you" means "I like to eat you"!
Secondly, if anything, the primary use of the Greek word here is "into". So one is baptised into the remission of sins, which does not change the purpose and implication of baptism.
Thirdly and most importantly, we need to take the whole teaching of the bible! What about other verses like Acts 22:16; Mark 16:16, 1Pe 3:21, etc.? God doesn't expect anyone to be a Greek scholar to come unto salvation!
This is truly an example of what Peter wrote in 2Pe 3:16 of "wresting Scriptures unto own destruction"!
What about the "gift of the Holy Ghost"? Admittedly there is more "controversy" surrounding this. The most direct and relevant reference is found in Acts 10:45, supported by Acts 8:20 and 11:17. Contextually, Peter seems to be referring to miraculous gifts. Question then is, how are they given? Automatically after baptism? Or through some other means? Even as we shall further see in Acts, we realise latter is much more likely and is basically through the laying of hands of the apostles (c.f. Acts 8:17;19:6).
And since the apostles were they only ones with the ability to pass on gifts, this ability ceased with the passing of the last apostle.
So what after? What about us today? One of the clearest and most logical take is found in Heb 6:4 — Heb 6:5 (KJV)
"For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted of the heavenly gift, and were made partakers of the Holy Ghost,
And have tasted the good word of God, and the powers of the world to come,"
So when we compare the "heavenly gift", "partakers of the Holy Ghost", "good word of God" and "the powers of the world to come", seems like the common factor is in the word of God. And when we consider in the broader context of things, the Word was inspired of the Holy Ghost (c.f. 2Pe 1:21), and the Word is the power unto salvation (Rom 1:16), hence the gift of the Holy Ghost in the post apostolic context points to the bible. And truly it is a gift, providentially given by God through the Holy Ghost, if anything, just by merely the fact how it had survived the ages and preserved prefectly for us today and into the future.
It remains for us to be eternally grateful for this gift and continually making use of it by studying and applying it to our lives, that we might be pleasing to Him and finally obtain our heavenly reward!
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